This concept is the “Shema Doctrine, based on “echad” in Deut. 6:4-5 “Hear, O Israel: The LORD our God is one LORD:”

The English word “Lord” comes from the Hebrew word “YHVH” and the word “God” from “Elohim” (0430 Strong concordance). The other English translation referring specifically to YHVH is Adonai or El Shaddai. By the way, there is no upper case in the original.

This uni-plural Hebrew word “elohim” means”multiplicity of powers”, plurality of powers or majesty, the most supreme of all powers”, otherwise Supreme God, the epitome of all. Contextually, “above all gods” in Ps 95:3; 96:4; 97:9; 135:5; I Chron.16:25. The possessive words “us” and ” our” in Genesis 1, were not in the original Hebrew but translated as such for “grammatical consistency”.

Moreover, “elohim” is a common or generic term, not a proper noun nor a specific term for a particular being. It occurs more than 2500 times in the Hebrew Bible, with meanings ranging from “gods” in a general sense (as in Exodus 12:12, where it describes “the gods of Egypt”), to specific gods (e.g., 1 Kings 11:33, where it describes Chemosh “the god of Moab”, or the frequent references to Yahweh (Jehovah) as the “elohim” of Israel), to demons, seraphim, and other supernatural beings, to the spirits of the dead brought up at the behest of King Saul in 1 Samuel 28:13, and even to kings and prophets (e.g., Exodus 4:16).The KJV has “elohim” translated as “judges” in Exodus 21:6; Exodus 22:8; and twice in Exodus 22:9.
These are “other gods”albeit “false gods” that definitely must not be worshipped as that would be tantamount to idolatry.

To be specific, this Elohim was further identified as the one and only “YHVH” (Yahweh) translated as “Lord” in Genesis 2; i.e., “YHVH ELOHIM” or “Lord God”. This is the Creator God referred to also in John 1 as LOGOS, who incarnated to man-Jesus, Yeshua or YHVH ELOHIM and was called “God” (John 1:1; 20:28; Titus 2:13), the “same yesterday, today and forever”(Heb.13:8). “YHVH ELOHIM” is the specific and proper name of the one true God of Israel. Much like “Smith” is generic or common name, but the proper name is the one and only “John Smith”. YHVH ELOHIM” is above all “gods”(Ps 95:3; 96:4;97:9;135:5; Ex. 15:11; IChr. 16:25)

Another name that is specific to the person is the Hebrew word “Adon” (singular) Adown, or “Adonim” (plural), Adonai. This is translated into English as “Lord” in the OT (Ex.34:23), the God of Israel. There was no attempt to duplicate this Hebrew in the NT.

In the New Testament, however, the English word “God” comes from the Greek word “Theos” and in general refers to the Father. Whereas, the English word “Lord” comes from the Greek word “kyrios”, and refers specifically to Jesus. Notice that Hebrew word “YHVH” and Greek word “Kyrios” are both translated into English word “Lord”, referring to Jesus, who is also Logos or Word in John 1.

A definitive separation and distinctiveness of these words can be proven in:
I Cor 8:6 “But we know that there is only one God, the Father, who created everything, and we live for him. And there is only one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom God made everything and through whom we have been given”.
I Tim. 2:5″There is one God, and one mediator also between God and men, the man Messiah Yeshua” .
Ps. 2:7:”You are my son; today I have become your father”. Not yesterday or tomorrow but “today”, “this is my beloved Son in whom I am well pleased” (Matt.3:17;Mk.1:11).
John 5:37 “And the Father who sent me has himself testified concerning me. You have never heard his voice nor seen his form”.

Jesus himself said that no one has seen nor heard the Father referred to in the New Testament. Conversely, all the time from Genesis on, the specific “elohim” had to be YHVH ELOHIM, the LOGOS according to John, who incarnated to man-Jesus (anthropos-Jesus to Paul), the Messiah Passover.

In short, “The Lord is one” refers only to YHVH ELOHIM not the FATHER of Jesus and of us all.

Deut. 10:17 as quoted, means that while the Bible confirms the existence of “many gods and lords”, YHVH is above all of them and the only one to be worshipped.

Comment:
I am the LORD, and there is no other; apart from me there is no God” (Isaiah 45:5).
“Give thanks to the Lord of lords, for his steadfast love endures forever” (Psalm 136:3, ESV
For the Lord your God is God of gods and Lord of lords, the great, the mighty, and the awesome God,…Deut 10:17

Ex. 15:11 “Who is like unto thee, O LORD, among the gods? who is like thee, glorious in holiness, fearful in praises, doing wonders?”

It means that YHVH, our Lord is not like any other.
He is distinct , unique and “above all gods”.

Ps. 95:2-4 states:
“Let us come before His presence with thanksgiving, Let us shout joyfully to Him with psalms. For the LORD is a great God And a great King above all gods, In whose hand are the depths of the earth, The peaks of the mountains are His also.…”
While other so-called “gods” are real like Satan, the god of this world, (2 Cor. 4:4), YHVH is superior to all these “gods” and He should be the only one to be worshipped, not others. However, when YHVH, the LOGOS, incarnated into man-Jesus, he said, “worship the Father”( John 4:22-24).

One of the most common answer given in a Master of Management or Business post-graduate program to any question is “it depends“. It is applicable to this question as well.

It depends on 2 corollaries:

1. What “Old Testament” law is referred to. If it is about the Decalogue or Ten Commandments as written in Exodus and given to Moses in Mt Sinai, then the answer is YES. On the other hand, if it is about sacrificial laws that Israel have to do in the Temple, the answer is NO as the “antitypes” already occurred and the Temple in Jerusalem is non-existing and instead replaced by our “bodies as temple of God”.

2. What is the goal of “obeying” the Law?

If the goal of the Christian “to obey Ten Commandments in the OT” is to be saved by our “own works”, then the answer is NO. On the other hand, if the goal of the Christian “to obey the Decalogue in the OT” is because, by so doing , it reflects the presence of “in-dwelling Holy Spirit” in us by the “fruits of the spirit”, then the answer is Yes.

The short answer is a resounding Yes! But why we have to, for what and how?

It was established by Paul that even those who are not Jews follow the Law (Rom 2:14). Even now, there are non-Christians who believe and love their own God and their neighbors. Their “righteousness” however, is not the “righteousness of God” which are reflected through the Holy Spirit as “fruits of the Spirit” and no one can have these fruits without the in-dwelling of this power as given by Jesus. These are the same people who will be rejected by Christ for their “own good works” (Matt 7:21-23) because they were not “works of the Holy Spirit” that God acknowledges. It is God who chooses what he likes and requires, what is acceptable to him, in spite of how good the works are.

Remember Abel and Cain? God chose Abel’s offering because it was “by faith“(Gen 4:3-5; Heb 11:4) not Cain’s. The rest of the Bible shows examples of the precept that God alone chooses what is to his liking, no matter what we think.

To start with, everything about our salvation, i.e. becoming a “new creation” members/body of the “kingdom of God“, was done not by you or me but by Jesus, the Messiah, the Logos of John 1 and the Creator Elohim in Genesis 1 & 2. It was all a gift by grace and out of love of the Father as in John 3:16. He fulfilled and is the giver of the “Helper” (John 14:26) to empower us to then fulfill as in: the “righteousness of the Law fulfilled in us” (Rom.8:4).

The death of man-Jesus (the Creator God) was substitutionary to pay the penalty of human’s sin, for mankind to be reconciled to the Father. The goal of his death is reconciliation, nothing more. Had he not been resurrected by the Father, Jesus could have died eternally and we are still “dead in sin” (I Cor 15:17). But, because of the Father’s promise of resurrection and the “faith of Jesus” in him, he was made alive. Having been resurrected to life, we “shall be saved by his life“(Rom 5:10).

Notice, the phrase “shall be saved“, meaning future, not yet, or in the process of salvation. But, how are we going to “be saved by his life”, his resurrected life? Remember John 16:7; 15:26; 14:16? He was resurrected for this very purpose, i.e., for the promised Holy Spirit to be sent and dwell in us, for us to “be endowed/empowered “, starting at Pentecost (Luke 24:49; Acts 1:4; Gal 3:14). We received this HS not by (our) works of the law but by “faith of Jesus” (Gal 3:2).

Why do we need the Holy Spirit? As circumcision is a “sign“, the HS serves as a “seal” (Ephesians 1:13) to identify us being in the “body of Christ” (1 Corinthians 12:27; 2Cor.1:21-22; 5:5; Eph 1:13-14; 4:30 Aside from that, we need “spirit-power” as the “flesh is weak”, (Matt 26:41). We need the Holy Spirit of power to be used by us to express the “fruits of the Spirit” (Gal.5:22-23). The HS gives us “cognition” as to which way to go or do, “conviction” to follow Jesus'(YHVH ELOHIM’s) Law, and “affection” for him and whatever is “good“, giving us the “mind of Christ” (I Cor 2:16).

That said, according to Paul, “the Law is holy” (Rom 7:12, v-14,v-23); nothing wrong with the Law and the Covenant. What was wrong was us, the flesh-nature that we have, that is “weak”. Remember that in Genesis, YHVH made “man (from dust) after his image”, and in the future to be “like him”. But that “clay” was flesh and “weak” so Adam could not be “like him” by his “own works”. It has to be by the “faith of Jesus”.

Adam, not knowing his “weakness”, did not “listen and follow” God, so he sinned and was banished from thituse “garden of Eden”. Adam was separated from God and needs to be “reconciled “. Having been reconciled by Christ’s death, we are now “being saved by his life through the function and power of the Holy Spirit” given to us as promised, to bring many sons to glory” (Heb 2:10).

Therefore, with the power of the Holy Spirit, follow the Ten Commandments as part of our process of “sanctification” (I Cor 6:11; Rom 8:9-11; 15:15-16; 2 Cor 1:21-22; Eph 1:13-14; 2 Thes 2:13; Titus 3:4-7; I Pet 1:1-2; 2:9-12; John 17:17; Rom 6:19-22; 8:5-14; Gal 5:16-24;I Pet 2:11; Rom 2:6-7).

Our prayer is for those who read this post to have “eyes to see, let him see; ears to hear, let him hear” the truth.

God Bless🙏😇

Original post: Sept 12, 2015

Exactly the reason that after death, this teaching that we immediately going to heaven can be problematic. It depends on what really goes to “heaven”? Our physical body and/or the “breath of life”?
Consider how and with what, man was created:
Gen. 2:7 “Then the LORD God formed a man from the dust of the ground and breathed into his nostrils the breath of life, and the man became a living being.”
Gen. 3:19 By the sweat of your brow you will eat your food until you return to the ground, since from it you were taken; for dust you are and to dust you will return.”
Notice from the preceding that man was made from matter, “dust of the ground”. As material body, it has no life intrinsic in it. It was only when the “breath of life” was “breathe into his nostrils” that the body became a living being/soul. The material body is flesh and is “earthy”. The “breath of life” did not come from the “dust of the ground” but instead came from a spirit-God and therefore “spiritual” and not matter-composed. A “soul” is a living being composed of body and “breath of life” we now call “spirit of man” 
According to Eccl. 12:7 “…and the dust returns to the ground it came from, and the spirit returns to God who gave it.”
Clearly, the “breath of life”(spirit of man) goes back to God at death while the physical body rots in “hell/hades”(tomb/earth). This “spirit of man” carries or is embedded with all the historical growth and development of this particular person in a unique way. It has no capacity to perform or actuate what it wants to do, of and by itself. As “spirit of man” it needs to express itself but only through a “body”.
This is why, this “spirit of man” has to get into another body, this time spirit-immortal bodies, to express itself through that body. And this joining together of these composites of man can only occur at resurrection, which in turn can only come at Jesus’ second coming for the “firstfruits” then the “latter fruits”.
In summary, yes “we” go to “heaven” after death. But, it is the “spirit of man” that goes immediately to the Creator who is in heaven. The material body however, decomposes. Another “body” is needed to join with this “spirit of man” to be functional. 

The short answer is, it depends on what “limit” means. 
All have “sinned and come short of the glory of God”(Rom. 3:23)

The consequence of Adam’s sin is “eternal death” or “second death” from which there is no resurrection. There is a “first death” because of our mortal flesh nature, from which all were “appointed to die” then be resurrected(Heb.9:27)
And, because of that, salvation is needed from this particular eternal death. But, salvation is a process strategically planned before creation. And, atonement is first and foremost. It refers to mankind’s reconciliation to God the Father. This requires the “atoning blood” from a “Passover Lamb” chosen from the “foundation of the world”. Remember, “without shedding of blood, there is no remission of sins” (Heb.9:22)
Since this atonement is for all mankind, (as Adam sinned so all were counted to have sinned), it is therefore “unlimited” as to its encompassing depth and breadth. . Meaning, for all and not limited to any particular person. 
However, , this atonement, is limited as to the time of its availability and effectiveness. It is limited first to those belonging to the “firstfruits” who will manifest themselves in the “first resurrection”. Then will be available and effective to those who will participate in the “second resurrection” occurring after the “Millenium”. Those who will be in the “second resurrection” and will not accept Christ and refuse the Holy Spirit’s in-dwelling will be judged to suffer “damnation and second death in the lake of fire”(Gehenna fire). 
In summary, atonement is unlimited as it encompasses all mankind. But, it is limited to certain people at a particular period of time. 

It depends on:

1. Which comes first and from which it emanates.

2. The concept of time at which “salvation” actually occurs.

Let me explain.
At the outset, we all need to be reminded that the “faith of Jesus” is the initiating (originating) event that has to occur before the “process of salvation” comes to fruition. Not anybody else’s faith, even though that is required and needed. Without this “faith of Jesus“, the process of salvation would not have commenced. As Jesus’ faith is first and foremost, indeed, we are “saved by faith” of Jesus. Not “by works” which only come after or secondary to the “in-dwelling of the Holy Spirit, which was promised and given as a gift.
Salvation is a process that is initiated by the “faith of Jesus” in the covenantal promises of God the Father. What the Father promised to the Creator God/Elohim in Genesis 1, the YHVH Elohim/ Lord Almighty in Genesis 2, the Logos in John 1:1 who incarnated into man-Jesus(anthropos), the “same yesterday-today-forever”, will be fulfilled. With emphasis on the word “will“, meaning “future” as the “salvation” is a process that has to occur every step of the way to culminate in its actuality.
This process includes:

1. Incarnation of Elohim/Logos into man-Jesus. Being spiritually-composed, the Creator God is immortal. Incarnation into a mortal human being has to occur for him to die as man-Jesus.
2. Death of man-Jesus, the Passover Lamb, for “remission of sin”, as “all have sinned”, to reconcile mankind to God the Father.
3. Resurrection of Jesus into an immortal body, spirit-composed, yet can be visible to mankind as needed. This resurrection has to occur for him to receive the promise of the Holy Spirit to be sent towards us by “in-dwelling“.
4. “Hearing” and “seeing“, through the Holy Spirit, this good news (gospel), we will then develop “faith“(substantive evidence) in Jesus and the Father, thereby believing, trusting in them and  hoping for promises to be fulfilled. Without our “belief” in him, the “Holy Spirit” will not be given to us. With the Holy Spirit thus given and in us, the “fruits of the spirit” will manifest through us. We will “bear fruits” which essentially translates to following the Ten Commandments, expressed in the “fruits of the Holy Spirit”.
The actual “salvation from eternal death” is by becoming  “spiritual bodies” in a “twinkling of an eye” at the time of “resurrection“. The “firstfruits” at the first resurrection when Christ returns will manifest to start the millennial period. Then, the “latter fruits” at their “second resurrection”.

In summary, salvation is originated by the “faith of Jesus” in God the Father. Our faith or substantive evidence is secondary and “comes from hearing and seeing” spiritually(Rom. 10:14-21), the Son’s gospel and the promise of God the Father. Faith then leads to belief in Him thereby receiving the gift of “in-dwelling” of the Holy Spirit. The “fruits“, which reflect obedience to the Ten Commandments, are then manifested. Without “bearing fruits“, we will be “cut down” like a tree. We are “being saved now” although already “saved by faith” as a mechanism of salvation. However, our salvation comes to actual fruition when our mortal matter-composed bodies change from mortal to immortal spirit-composed bodies. Being immortal, “death where is thy sting?”

This question delves into a very crucial understanding of what constitutes a “human”. 
Notice, Gen. 2:7, “Then the LORD God formed a man from the dust of the ground and breathed into his nostrils the breath of life, and the man became a living being.”
From the narrative in Genesis, man is composed of:

1. Matter: our physical body comes from the “dust of the ground” that has no life. 

2. Breath of life: this physical body became a”living soul/body/being” only after this component was given by God. This did not come from “earth and not earthy” nor “made by hands”.. It came from God, therefore, heavenly and spiritual. This “breath of life” is the energizing power that brought life to the material body. This is not “oxygen” that we breath since oxygen is “matter” not “spiritual”. This is what we now call the “spirit of man”.
Truly, the “flesh is weak” and is temporary as the “temple” is temporary. As we are the “temples of God”, He intimated their temporal nature in the Old Testament times by dwelling from tabernacle which was pitched from place to place, to 1st temple to 2nd temple which was destroyed in 70 AD. The Spirit of God then dwells fully in man-Jesus(anthropos) at river Jordan after coming out of water baptism (Mk. 1:10), and dwelled among the apostles in Pentecost (Acts 2:1-13) and others, since then. This is the “spirit power of God” that seals us to the body of Christ, teaches us the “mind of Christ” to be like him.
The physical body will die and at death, the body goes to “hades”(hell/burial place” and deteriorate, while the “spirit of man” goes back to its Creator. As Jesus is the Creator Elohim in Genesis 1, YHVH Elohim in Genesis 2 and the Logos in John 1, no wonder Jesus said to the thief in Golgotha, “today, (at death) you shall be with me in paradise”. 
Without a body, this “spirit of man” can not express any “action or activity” much like our “mind” can not do anything without a body. Hence, this “spirit of man” has to be placed in another body, this time an “immortal body” for the “firstfruits” at Christ’s return, then the “latter-fruits” for action to be expressed. 

The crux of the question lies on what one understands about the word “God”. This English word is a translation of the Hebrew word “elohim” and the Greek word “theos”.

The original word, has no capital letter. Moreover, the original Hebrew word “elohim” translated to English word “god” is “generic” and not proprietary nor specific. The generic term Elohim refers to the true “God” (2507x), as well as to “gods,” “goddesses,” and things divine or mighty. In total, it occurs 2602 times in the Hebrew bible (Tanach). The word is used for: the true God, false gods, supernatural spirits (angels), and human leaders, viz., kings, judges. The word “god” is used for individual false gods and one goddess — such as Dagon, Chemosh, Baal, Ashtoreth — (1 Sam 5:7; 1 Kgs 11:33; 18:24; 1 Kgs 11:5).

How then can one be certain about what the writer means? Looking at the context and usage, the writer actually identifies which one is referred to, specifically. Read the following:

Gen. 2:4 “… in the day that the LORD God (YHVH Elohim) made the earth and the heavens,”. The generic word “elohim” in Genesis 1 has been further specifically identified as “YHVH Elohim” or “Lord God” in Genesis 2.

“I am YHVH your Elohim . . . you shall have no other elohim in my presence” (Ex. 20:2-3). The translator started with capital letter “E” for “Elohim” and small letter “g” for “other elohim” rendered “other gods” to indicate “false gods” instead of “other God”? Also, “GOD of gods” or literally, “ELOHIM of elohim” (Deut 10:17; Ps 136:2) refer to the supreme or true god. Moreover, YHVH is translated in the Old Testament as “LORD” in English as in the New Testament: Rev. 19:16 “On his robe and on his thigh he has this name written: king of kings and lord of lords”.(NIV). Rightly so, as the Creator God, the YHVH ELOHIM is also the LOGOS in John 1:1 that incarnated to man-Jesus (anthropos-Jesus, according to Paul).

Ps. 136:2 Give thanks to the God of gods. His love endures forever.(NIV)

He is “one” (echad) as in Deut. 6:4 “Hear, O Israel: The LORD our God, the LORD is one” (SHEMA doctrine of the Jews). This is the true God to be worshipped and not any of the various “false gods” referred to at that time. In the Greek translation of the Hebrew Bible (the Septuagint), where elohim refers to the true God, the singular theos is used.
Genesis 1:1 Hebrew — “In the beginning, Elohim created the heavens and the earth.”
Genesis 1:1 Greek — “In the beginning, Theos made the heavens and the earth”.

Human Elohim/elohim:
Ex. 7:1 “And the LORD(YHVH) said unto Moses, See, I have made thee a god (elohim) to Pharaoh:…”. Moses is elohim to pharaoh because he stands as God’s representative in the court of Egypt

Ex. 4:16 “And he shall be thy spokesman unto the people: and he shall be, even he shall be to thee instead of a mouth, and thou shalt be to him instead of Elohim (God)”. . Moses is also elohim to his brother Aaron (Exod 4:16), i.e. in God’s place of authority.

The shoftim (governor-judges) of ancient Israel are “elohim”, because they dispense God’s judgments, as in:
“Then his master [adonim] shall bring him to the judges” [elohim]. (Exod 21:6)
“The owner of the house shall appear before the judges” [elohim]. (Ex. 22:8)
“He whom the judges [elohim] condemn shall pay double to his neighbor”. Ex. 22::9)
“You shall not curse the judge [elohim], nor curse a ruler [nasi] of your people.” (Ex. 22::28)

Most importantly, Jesus himself called those Jews “don’t you know that you are gods?”(Ps. 82:6 and John 10:34-35).

The New Testament (which is in the same Koiné Greek as the Septuagint) is specific as to which “god” is referred to. It does not have different words for or spellings of “God”. That is, no singular or plural forms of “theos”. When the NT quotes passages from the Hebrew Bible or the Greek Septuagint that contain the word “God,” it always has the singular noun.

Typically, the word theos distinguishes the Father from Yeshua, his son, as in:
“There is one God, the Father . . . and one Lord, Yeshua Messiah” (1 Cor 8:6). “There is one God, and one mediator also between God and men, the man Messiah Yeshua” (1 Tim 2:5). The “God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob” or “God of our fathers” is the Father of Yeshua they have in mind (Acts 3:13; 5:30).

A few times, Yeshua is called “God” (John 1:1; 20:28; Titus 2:13; 2 Peter 1:1, etc.). But these verses must be viewed within the overall patterns and message of the New Testament in which Yeshua, as God’s Son, Lord, and Messiah, is the Father’s representative embodiment. He is “God” because he is God’s image (Col 1:15; 1 Cor 11:7). And God’s “image” is his Son (as it was on a smaller scale with Adam: Gen 1:26; Luke 3:38, “Adam, the son of God”; 1 Cor 11:7

Had this concept of “god” been understood by Athanasius and Arius, could there have been unity instead of a split of the Christian Church in the 4th century?