What is the Shema Doctrine?

The Shema doctrine is a key concept of Judaism on who God is.
As stated, this concept originated from Deut. 6:4; the English translation is: “Hear O Israel: the Lord our God, the Lord is one”. In the original Hebrew, Lord is YHVH, God is Elohim and “one” is echad. So, to rephrase the verse: “Hear O Israel, the YHVH our Elohim, the YHVH is echad.”
If one compares Genesis 1, the God/Elohim(the Creator) and Genesis 2, it is clear that the word “Elohim” is generic or common name for God and YHVH ELOHIM is the proper name. Much like John Smith, Smith is a common name but John is the proper name. There is only one specific John Smith as there is only “one/echad” YHVH ELOHIM translated in English as “Lord God”.
We all acknowledge that the Creator of and who “purposed” all is the Father (Heb. 1:2; Eph. 3:9-11; I Cor. 8:6). But, creation was actually and proximately done, not by the Father, but by the LOGOS, the WORD (just by his word, creation happened as in God said, Gen. 1). This LOGOS incarnated into man-Jesus (John 1). That Genesis Creator therefore is the LOGOS who became man-Jesus, ” the same yesterday, today and forever”(Heb. 13:8).
But, notice how Paul was clear as to how distinct, separate and unique are each one:
I Cor. 8:6 ” But we know that there is only one God(theos), the Father, who created everything…and there is only one Lord(kyrios), Jesus Christ through whom God(theos) made everything…”! Tim. 2:5 ” There i s one God(theos), and one mediator also between God(theos) and men, the man Messiah Yeshua”(Jesus)
WHile this Father and Son relationship was prophesied, it did not come to fruition until declared officially in the “river Jordan”, “You are my son; today I have become your father (Ps. 2:7). Again, notice not yesterday or tomorrow, but “today”. When there is a son, there is a father (Matt. 3:17; Mk.1:11). This relationship was planned even before creation, Jesus is the “beginning and the end”(Rev.22:13), to bring “many sons to glory” (Heb.2:10).
Indeed, the God that the Hebrews were referring to in Genesis is “one/echad”, the YHVH ELOHIM (LOGOS, Jesus). The Jews in Jesus’ time did not recognize nor acknowledge this fact and instead accused him of “blasphemy”. For how could a “man” claim to be the Jews YHVH ELOHIM who is spiriti, not human? (Jn 10:31-39).He is separate from the Father who is also “one/echad”. Both are distinct, separate and unique from each other as a “being” although “one” as in “one body yet many members” (I Cor. 12:20).
However, while they are “distinct” yet “one”, to further differentiate the two, notice that while “all powers were given” back to Jesus (Matt. 28:18) he will be subjected to the Father so that the Father may be “all in all”. Yes, we will “all be one in the Father”. Jesus will make us “kings and priests unto God, his Father” (Rev. 1:6). We are being made from “an image” of YHVH ELOHIM (Gen. 1:26-27) to be “conformed to his likeness” (Jesus) as in Rom. 8:29; 2 Cor. 3:18;I Thes.1:6;Lu.6:40;Jn.16:26;Phil.2:4-5).
Retrospectively, the meaning of the original Hebrew words “elohim’,YHVH, echad, Adonai, El Shaddai as well as the Greek words, “theos, kyrios,” have been “lost in translation to English”
In general, the English word “God” in the Old Testament refers to YHVH ELOHIM/Jesus. Whereas, in general in the New Testament, the English word “God” refers to the Father.
Yes, this was his plan all along when it came to “man” in Genesis and reflected in Ps. 8:4-6 and explained in Heb. 2:6. As we were created initially as an “image”, a template” or “temple” into which the Holy Spirit will dwell God has an interest as a Potter to “marred clay” (Jer. 18:4-6) to conform us into his Son. Indeed, we will all be in the God-kingdom, not the plant-kingdom, animal kingdom nor the angelic-species. As Eve came from the flesh of Adam, so shall the church/woman will come from man-Jesus, and the “twain shall be one flesh”.
Now, the Shema doctrine hopefully wil be better understood.

Plan of Salvation?

This is a plan on “how to be in the God-Kingdom”. In essence, “how to” is anchored, not on “works” but on the righteousness of faith, the faith “of” Jesus and not on anyone’s faith.

God the Father shows us how to “enter” the Kingdom of God, meaning how to be saved, as in, “unless your righteousness exceeds the righteousness of the scribes and Pharisees, (which is by works) you will by no means enter the kingdom of heaven” (Matt 5:19, 20).

The “righteousness of God” is the “righteousness of faith”, by faith “of” Jesus (Rom 1:17; 3:21-31; 5:1), who started it; He is the “author and finisher of our faith”(Heb 12:2). It is by grace through faith so that “no one can boast”(Eph 2:8-9; I Cor 1:29), and is based on love (1 Corinthians 13:4-7 NLT)

Moreover, this faith of Jesus continues “from faith to faith”(Rom.1:17), as his faith is the one that the Father sees as ours, imputed on us, as we ourselves adopt this faith. Meaning, we have to have faith in Jesus and by extension, faith in the promise of God the Father.

That faith “of” Jesus is in the Father to reckon Jesus’ death as payment in full for the punishment of Adam’s/mankind’s sin with the goal of reconciling us to the Father. His death reconciled us to put us in the status of Adam prior to him committing sin against God. Reconciliation, as important as it is, did not actually “save” us. To explain this concept, just consider if Jesus stayed “dead”. That means he indeed “reconciled” us but did not “save” us, because as Paul said, “we are saved by his life”(Rom.5:9-10). Meaning, he has to be resurrected “to life” and for what purpose?:

“But very truly I tell you, it is for your good that I am going away. Unless I go away, the Advocate will not come to you; but if I go, I will send him to you.”(Jn 16:7).

“By this he meant the Spirit, whom those who believed in him were “later” to receive. Up to that time the Spirit had “not been given”, since Jesus had “not yet been glorified”(Jn 7:39)

This Holy Spirit was given on faith, by grace and for what purpose?

“When the Advocate comes, whom I will send to you from the Father–the Spirit of truth who goes out from the Father–he will testify about me.”(Jn.15:26).

“But the Advocate, the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in my name, will teach you all things and will remind you of everything I have said to you”(Jn 15:26).

Why the need for the Holy Spirit?

“In the same way, the Spirit helps us in our weakness.”(Rom 8:26).
“For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God (Father) sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh”(Rom 8:3)
“Spirit is willing but flesh is weak” (Mk 14:38; Matt.26:41)and needed “re-doing like a Potter to marred clay” (Jer 18:4; Heb 2:6; Ps.8:4); “marred by sin”.

In summary, we, who are called and predestined, will receive this Holy Spirit promised, even before the foundation of the world, by the Father to Jesus(same Logos in John 1Creator,YHVH ELOHIM in Gen 2). This HS was given not because of the “works” of Jesus as “a reward for dying”. Rather, it was given on faith “of” Jesus, by grace and on love of the Father. This is “the righteousness of God the Father”. It will “seal, nurture, guide, sanctify us to have “the mind of Christ”(Phil.2:5; Rom.12:2) and to be “conformed into his likeness”. Without this in-dwelling of HS, there is no salvation. It takes this power in us to be “like Christ”.

Mankind was created to be in the God-kingdom, not in the plant-kingdom, animal-kingdom, nor among the angelic species. To be “saved” is to be in the God-kingdom.

No one has seen God (John 1:18), so how can Jesus be God?

The question stems from John 1:18 “No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.”

The method of reasoning is understandable: since no one has seen God and Jesus was seen by many, therefore Jesus is “not God”.

This confusion results from failure to understand who the God referred to in John 1:18.

In general, when the NT speaks of God, it refers to the Father God. But when Jesus is referred to, the words “I AM”, “Logos” and “Lord ” are used. In the OT, Jesus is referred to as YHVH ELOHIM, I AM, EL SHADDAI.

That Jesus is God Creator is clear in John 1, the Logos Creator. And in John 1:14 ” And the Word/Logos was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father, full of grace and truth.”

As to the differentiation between the God the Father and God the Son (“Lord”),
Eph 1:3 “Blessed be the God (Theos) and Father of our Lord (kyrios)”Jesus Christ,”

Likewise, Peter differentiated the two, as in “Blessed be the God(Theos) and Father of our Lord (kyrios) Jesus Christ,”(I Pet. 1:3)

In essence, indeed,  “no one has seen God (the Father Theos) , but has seen Jesus, the God kyrios, the Lamb Meschiach (the “Son of God”, “Lord God”, “Logos”, “YHVH ELOHIM, “EL SHADDAI”).

See also:
https://ebible.com/questions/3196-why-is-god-so-different-in-the-old-testament-than-he-is-in-the-new-testament
https://ebible.com/questions/3988-what-did-jesus-mean-when-he-said-i-am
http://yahushua.net/YAHUWAH/chapter_08.htm
http://www.exodus-314.com/part-ii/the-meaning-of-ligehyeh-asher-ehyehlig.html

When Jesus know he is God?

Physiologically, no one among us humans know anything at time of birth except basic emotions. It is a stretch in credulity to believe that the newborn Jesus knew that he was “god”. After all, we are a composite of accumulated knowledge learned since birth through our senses, e.g., eyes, ears, etc. It is obvious that Jesus did not know that he was “god” at birth.

However, as a full grown man he knew that there are many “gods”, like Satan as god of this world (Jn 12:31;II Cor 4:4), idols, and all humans as in …Jn.10:34 when Jesus classified humans as, “Jesus answered them , Is it not written in your law , I said , Ye (humans) are gods ?”

There is no indication since his birth until Luke 2:49, when as a boy about 12 years old, Jesus acknowledged “his Father’s business”, suggesting that he knew he is the prophesied Son. As we all have learned from our parents, presumably, Mary and Joseph told him about ” immaculate conception” during childhood.

And this identity as prophesied Son became official at baptism not only from John the Baptist but from God the Father himself through the Spirit in Luke 3:22 “And the Holy Ghost descended in a bodily shape like a dove upon him, and a voice came from heaven, which said, Thou art my beloved Son; in thee I am well pleased”

After that baptism, he was then “full in Spirit” since. Also, Jesus was reading Isaiah in Luke 4:18 “The Spirit of the Lord is upon me,”.”; v-21 “And he began to say unto them, This day is this scripture fulfilled in your ears.”

During Satan’s temptation of Jesus, Luke 4:12 he indicated himself as “Lord your God”. This is a reference made from Deut. 6:16 about the Lord God (YHVH ELOHIM), who was the Creator (Gen. 2:4), Logos and Jesus himself (Jn. 1:1-3).

In summary, Jesus as YHVH ELOHIM knew he was God. But, after incarnation into man-Jesus, he did not know this as a newborn. During childhood, he learned that he was the “prophesied Son” from his parents Mary/Joseph, later from John the Baptist and officially from God the Father himself.

Light on the 1st day, yet sun was still on the 4th day?

Yes, this certainly is problematic. And the reason maybe because of traditional understanding of Gen. 1:1 & 1:2, which should be re-analyzed.

Gen. 1:1 should be interpreted as “did not” come from anything that can be seen”(Heb 11:3 NLT). Meaning, that the Creator God Logos (John 1) simply said the words “let there be” and the “heavens and the earth” were created.

Yes, the Creator Logos can easily say the “word” and things were created. The truth is, He did not need anything to create something. Meaning, that the Creator did not start with “without form”/bohuw and “void”/tohuw”, not with “darkness”/choshek”(Gen. 1:2) that described something already existing prior to creation.

Also, notice that from creation, it started with “good”, not with chaos or destruction. Instead, I Tim 4:4 “For everything God created (or started) is good,…,”

That said, an original “very good/perfect” creation of “heavens and earth” in Gen. 1:1 became “without form”/bohuw and “void”/tohuw”, with “darkness”/choshek” in Gen.1:2. Could there have been a “celestial war” that caused this devastation that occurred in the time span between these 2 verses?

With this scenario, the sun, moon, stars and earth were already created in Gen. 1:1 which could be eons ago. Then in Gen. 1:2 there was this history of destruction and chaos. After that “destruction”, was “cleansing” in v-2 that started on the literal “first day” as in “And the Spirit of God moved upon the face of the waters(mayim or waste)”. The Spirit of God “cleanse the waste” and “darkness” that covered those already existing celestial bodies within that 6 day-period. The living things like plants, animals, humans were actually created on “literal” “sunset-to-sunset” days, as “very good”.

This pattern of creation was also shown in the creation of man as originally “very good/perfect”, then because of sin became “marred clay” which will be “re-conformed” (and cleansed) by the Potter (Jer.18:4; Heb 2:6; Ps.8:4) into the “likeness of Christ (Rom 8:29) to bring many sons to glory” (Heb 2:10).

What happens when one dies?

Life is conferred when “the breath of life” gets into the body. See Gen 2:7 and Gen 7:21-22.

Functionally, we observe this among newborns; unless there is spontaneous or artificial breathing, they are dead.

When this “breath of life”, which is the “spirit” of life”, leaves us and go to the Creator or origin of life, we are declared “dead” and our physical body becomes “dust”. See Eccl 12:7

Paul considers us “asleep” to reckon the fact that this state of “physical death” is temporary. We shall be resurrected either as “flesh” or as “spirit-beings” with “immortal, spirit-composed bodies” that can metamorphose into “visible “flesh composed bodies” to be seen, at our discretion. See the narrative of Christ’s resurrected body, and the angel-spirits visible to Abraham and Lot as in Gen 18 and 19.

What is the gospel message?

The “gospel of the kingdom of God”, is the “gospel of salvation”. But, how are they synonymous? Please follow me on this progression of “mocking” thought by Isaiah, “precept upon precept, line upon line, here a little, there a little” (Isa 28:10, 13).

Remember, that mankind was made in the “image” (or likeness, and it was so) of YHVH Elohim (Gen.1&2) to have (future) dominion (radah,to subjugate) over all earth (Gen.1:26-28). Moreover, that the “world to come” will not be “subject” (again) to angels but to mankind (Heb.2:5-18). And also, that the Lamb was “slain from the foundation of the world” (Rev.13:8). Indeed, it goes back even before the beginning of this world.

There is this strategic plan that while God did not like mankind to sin, man was created “very good” but still mortal and can die, even without sinning. He was “very good” as a “formed clay” but still “incomplete” as God will re-visit this “marred clay” as a potter can do to any clay to make it better, into “another vessel”(Jer 18:4).

However, in the garden of Eden, Adam sinned against God’s commandment, “thou shall not eat of the fruit of the tree of knowledge of good and evil.. as he would surely die”(Gen.2:17). What death was God referring to? Notice this, “As it was once appointed that man would die and after that, the judgment” (Heb 9:27), therefore everyone will die (naturally, being mortal) then be resurrected to be judged as to the final destiny: “eternal life or “eternal death”.

The death therefore that God was referring to in Gen 2:17 was not “mortal death” that everyone was “once appointed” to be resurrected from. It has to be “eternal death”, from which there is no resurrection. The sin of Adam warrants eternal death not mortal death. Mankind will all die being mortals and be resurrected, but will be facing the judgment of eternal life or eternal death. The sin of Adam has a consequence of “eternal death” from which by substitution was imputed to the death of Jesus. That death of Jesus could have been eternal had it not been for the promise of Father God that Jesus would be resurrected. The faith (of) Jesus (in) the Father is anchored securely on this. Jesus’ death was an imputation for the “eternal death”, not the physical or mortal death. As Jesus was resurrected from what could have been “eternal death”, so shall those who follow Jesus as he is “bringing many sons to glory” (Rom 2:10).

The sin of Adam is punishable with “eternal death” that would have separated mankind “eternally” from the Father. The God of Gen 1 & 2, the YHVH ELOHIM/Lord God has to incarnate and die so that mankind would be reconciled to the Father. But, his death was only for reconciliation, not for salvation. Instead, we are saved “by his life”, i.e., Jesus has to be resurrected, for what? Notice, John 16:7 and John 14:16, 26 that he has to be resurrected to “life”, so the Holy Spirit will be sent to us “to dwell” in us (Acts 2). Why should the H.S. dwell in us? So that we will power (Acts1:8) and for sanctification (1Pet.1:2;RoRom 15:16; Cor.6:11; II Thes 2:13).
This HS provides spirit-power for “cognition, conviction, affection” and “oneness” with God. As circumcision is a “seal” to identify Israel, so is the HS a seal (Jn.6:7;2 Cor 1:21-22; Eph 1:13-14; 4:30; 2 Cor 5:5.

This HS prepares us to have the “mind of Christ”, so that at resurrection and endowed with spirit-body we will “be like him” and no longer just “an “image” (Gen 1) but co-substance with God.

Finally, “salvation” is about becoming a “new creation”, a “kingdom of God”. When God created living things, he created angelic-kingdom, plant-kingdom, and animal-kingdom. But, when it came to “man”, God was not creating a “human kingdom”, instead, God was creating a kingdom composed of spirit beings “like him”, a ” kingdom of God” and above angelic beings. The kingdom of God is more than just a “government of God” and a place. It is a “new creation”.

What an awesome gospel and destiny of man

Is Salvation by Faith alone or with works?

On this question, the answer becomes understandable after addressing the confusion that arises from what one understands about:
A. What is the mechanism of salvation? Are we saved already or is this still future?
B. How do we “show fruits” of the Holy Spirit towards salvation?
C. What salvation is and from what?
Answering these questions requires reconciling the following verses. Comments are made after quoting them:

A. Mechanism of salvation, saved already or yet future?
It helps to start with Ephesians 2:8-9
For by grace you have been saved through faith. And this is not your own doing; it is the gift of God, not a result of works, so that no one may boast.”




COMMENT: Salvation is indeed by grace of the Father and a gift, not by our own works, so no man (even Jesus) can boast of what he did,i.e., crucified for us. Mankind has been alienated from Father God because of sin (Gen. 3), so egregious and a seminal event that deserved eternal death. Everyone’s sin reverted or defaulted to, by imputation, to Adam’s sin, one man,((Rom.5:12-21), so that his eternal death, as a consequence thereof, could be imputed to Jesus’ eternal death, also one man. But, the proximate result/effect of the death of Christ is to reconcile us to Father God, i.e., his death did not proximately or actually save us. It restored us back to the state of Adam before he sinned. It justified (just-as-if-did-not-sin) us in the eyes of the Father . As Rom 5:10 states, 
For if while we were enemies we were reconciled to God (through the death) of His Son, much more, having (been reconciled), we shall be saved by His life”. 



Notice, Adam’s/mankind’s eternal death was imputed to Jesus’ eternal death which then reconciled/justified us to Father God, but still we (shall) be “saved by his life”, i.e., we will (still) need to be saved (future) by “his life“. Meaning, after his death and our reconciliation, Jesus (on his belief) has to be resurrected to “life” before we can be saved. But, why did Jesus need to be resurrected? Notice in John 16:7 
Nevertheless I tell you the truth; It is expedient for you that I go away: for if I go not away, the Comforter will not come unto you; but if I depart (to the Father), I will send him unto you.” 



And, after resurrection and departing to the Father, what would Jesus do: Luke 24:49 
“And, behold, I send the promise of my Father upon you: but tarry ye in the city of Jerusalem, until ye be imbued with power from on high.”

The “faith (of) man-Jesus” in the Father is evidence-based as he was with the Father before the world began and he knew him as the source of power and wisdom. Predicated on that evidence-based faith, Jesus then trusted the Father and hoped, that:
 (1) His death would bring “reconciliation/justification“for mankind, 

(2) At his resurrection, the Spirit would be gifted to be “in us“,through Jesus, as promised, and 

(3) For the ultimate purpose of “bringing many sons to glory“(Heb. 2:10). 

It was prophesied that from a “stony heart”, figuratively “tables of stone“, that we had before, the Spirit will get into us to reside in the “fleshly tables of our heart” to write his laws (2Cor.3:3;Ex.31:18; Ezekiel.11:19, 36:26; Jer. 31:33) changed from “stony heart” to “fleshly tables” of our heart, now open for learning, guidance and “wisdom“. As Pharaoh was “hardened and blind” (Ex 9:12), so were we “deaf and blind” spiritually (Jn 12:40; Mk 4:12; Isa 6:10) until the Spirit was given to us, starting on chosen people at Pentecost. The Spirit is sorely needed by us, that Christ had to die, because “the flesh is weak” (Matt 26:40-43). Without this Spirit, we will not have “the empowering tool” for us to “see” even with our physical eyes, nor “ears” to hear, even with our physical ears. Yes, we are “blind and deaf” to spiritual things without this Spirit of God. Just remember that Peter did not know who Christ was until the Father “revealed it to him” by the Spirit (Matt. 16:15-17), the empowering tool. This is the principle and importance of having the Spirit in us, for guidance, safety, protection, nurturing, yes, sanctification.
B. How do we “show fruits” of this Holy Spirit towards salvation
Consider James 2:17-18
So also faith by itself, if it does not have works, is dead. But someone will say, “You have faith and I have works.” Show me your faith apart from your works, and I will show you my faith by my works.”


COMMENT: The context was about “showing“, our faith. The Spirit of God in us, molding the “spirit of man” (breath of life in Genesis) will have “fruits of the spirit”(Gal 5:22-23). True faith will then show or manifest in “good works“. These “works” however are “works of God” through us by the Spirit given by grace and as a gift because of the “faith of Jesus”. Any “good work” that emanates from us, are as “filthy rags” (Isaiah 64:6) to God; it has to be a product or “fruit of the Holy Spirit” in us. No one can therefore “boast“, even when our personal faith is required, as from “faith (of Jesus) to our faith“. Notice that in the garden of Gethsemane, Jesus followed, not his will, but the will of the Father (Lu. 22:42; Jn.4:34; 6:32-44). So must we, as empowered by the Holy Spirit. Indeed, not our “own works“, but the “works” of the Spirit given to mold us “like clay being shaped” (Isa 64:8; Jer 18:1-23; 18:2-6; Rom 9:21) into the mindset of Christ, the Head of the “body of Christ”, the church. Without these fruits manifested, how then can one be sure about the presence of true faith? Indeed, “showing” translates to expression seen in “good works”.
C. What salvation is and from what?
In Gen. 2:17 “But of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil, thou shalt not eat of it: for in the day that thou eatest thereof thou shalt surely die.  



COMMENT: The death referred to here, is that death wherein there is no resurrection, the 2nd death, eternal death. There are 2 kinds of death:
1. The death from which there is resurrection, aka, “sleep“being temporary. This refers to natural death and buried in “hades“(hell/grave) from which there is coming resurrection. Many examples of man dying but resurrected back to life:
A. Elijah raised the son of the Zarephath widow from the dead (1 Kings 17:17-22). 

B. Elisha raised the son of the Shunammite woman from the dead (2 Kings 4:32-35). 
C. A man was raised from the dead when his body touched Elisha’s bones (2 Kings 13:20, 21). 
D. Many saints rose from the dead at the resurrection of Jesus (Matt 27:50-53). 
E. Jesus raised the son of the widow of Nain from the dead (Luke 7:11-15). 
F. Jesus raised the daughter of Jairus from the dead (Luke 8:41, 42, 49-55). 
G. Jesus raised Lazarus from the dead (John 11:1-44). 
H. Peter raised Dorcas from the dead (Acts 9:36-41). 
I. Eutychus was raised from the dead by Paul (Acts 20:9, 10). 
All were resurrected to live again on earth but died again. 

2. “Second” death or “eternal death” from which there is no resurrection (Rev 2:11; 20:6, 7- 14; 21:8). Rev. 20:14-15 ” And death and hell were cast into the lake of fire. This is the second death. And whosoever was not found written in the book of life was cast into the lake of fire”



Notice that those in the end who overcame through the power of the Holy Spirit in them, will participate in the 1st resurrection and the 2nd death has no power as they have eternal life. Those who are alive and those dead prior to the start of the Millenium, will be changed from mortality to immortality “in a twinkling of an eye”(I Cor. 15:52);  the first resurrection. Those who did not participate in the 1st resurrection will still be in the grave/hades and stay dead, but will resurrect to mortal life, their “first resurrection“, after the Millenium. At that time, God will give them their first chance to receive the promise of the Holy Spirit to sanctify them. As to whether they “submit themselves” (Eph. 5:1-33 ) freely and be “one” with God, depends on their choice; mandated but not forced down their throats. 
The second death will be at beginning of the Millenium when Christ returns and will be to those who fought against him, i.e., 7th Head of Babylonian remnant, the Woman, and their minions. This is repeated and exacted after the Millenium when Satan will be released from “prison” (hell,Tartaros) and will again attempt to deceive the world; Gog and Magog will suffer this. This is the death from “Gehenna fire” in the “valley of the son of Hinnom” outside Jerusalem, on current earth mentioned in Matt 5:29-30; 10:29; 18:9; 23:33; Mk 9:43-50; Lu 12:5; James 3:6; Rev 20:14). Gehenna fire’s death is clearly a punishment from which there is no resurrection; eternal or second death. Being mortal, their lives will cease , unlike Satan who will be “living in torment”, being a spirit-being.
There is “first” death which is a reversible death that can be resurrected from into “physical life” like Lazarus, et al (John 11:14; Lu.7:15; 8:51-56;Acts 9:40-41;20:9-12).

This is why from “mortal” we need to be changed in a “twinkling of an eye“(I Cor. 15:52) to “immortal bodies“. All who died naturally will be resurrected, as in, “it is once appointed for man to die, then the resurrection“(Heb. 9:27); this refers to the “physical resurrection“. N.B. “Valley of dry bones” (Ezek. 37:1-14) prophesied for those mortal who died and to be restored as Adam before committing sin. Lazarus and some others died a “natural death” and physically resurrected by God’s power but died again into as “appointed“. 
Consider the following:

Gen. 1:26 “And God said, Let …make man…image, after likeness (of God): and let them have dominion over every … thing …upon the earth.”   
Also, I John 3:2 “Beloved, now are we the (begotten) sons of God, and it doth not yet appear what we shall be: but we know that, when he shall appear, we shall be like him; for we shall see him as he is.”



COMMENT: Humans were created to be in the God-kingdom, not in the plant-kingdom nor the animal-kingdom. There is no “physical missing link” that is intermediate between one kind to another. As stated, each has to stay within and “after their kind” (Gen 1:11-13,21), a principle of Genetics. The “missing link” is spiritual that comes through the Spirit. We were created to be “like him” and we will be so, at Jesus’ second coming, the “first spirit-body resurrection”. After which, they that participated in this “1st spirt-body resurrection“, (firstfruits) will not die, an eternal life with God. The “latter fruits” of believers and overcomers will later come/latter harvest, after the Millenium. 
SUMMARY:
Salvation is being saved from the “second death” (Rev 20:14), where there is no resurrection. Mortals who were given a chance (pre/post Millenium) to bear fruits of the Holy Spirit but instead rejected or did not follow the wisdom of this power (unpardonable sin;Mk.3:29 , Matt 12:31) will be thrown in Gehenna fire. Salvation is indeed by grace, a gift to us by the Father. This came about, not by “our works or our faith”. Rather, by man-Jesus’ belief/hope/trust, based on faith/evidence,  in the promises of the Father and his works as “fruits of the Holy Spirit” in him. Yes, faith and works (through the Holy Spirit) of man-Jesus. Because of Jesus’ death, we are then accounted as reconciled to the Father; justified. After resurrection to “life“, the Holy Spirit gifted to Jesus, post-resurrection, was given and dwelt in us, as it did to man-Jesus in the river Jordan at baptism. Having been imbued with this Spirit, we, like Jesus, will then voluntarily manifest the “fruits of the Spirit“. Faith without works is not shown and therefore dead, i.e. without proof that it existed in us. The actual first realization of our salvation is still future at “the twinkling of an eye“(I Cor 15:52-57), at the second coming of Christ; the “firstfruits”, afterwards, the latter-fruits. True faith in God has to have works, manifested as “the fruits of the Spirit.” From faith-to-faith (Rom..1:17), i.e., from faith (of) Jesus (in) the Father, to our faith (in) Christ that transcends to the Father. And, while many, we will all be “one” with the Father, as Christ is “one” with him.
Original Post:April 10, 2015

Revised:January 10, 2018

Did God die and still claim Jesus is God?

It depends on one’s concept of “What is God?” and what comprises “death”. 

To begin with, there is no “upper case” in the original Hebrew word “elohim” translated from Old Testament to an English word that starts with capital letter “G” as in “God”. Moreover, the word “elohim” beginning in Gen. 1:1 and on, is a generic or common name. It can refer to the only true God the Creator to be worshipped, false gods to be avoided, god as angels (like Lucifer the god of this earth/world), rulers, even ordinary man: see Concordance and definitions of elohim as well as http://fact-s.net/2014/06/29/what-is-god-2/.

Much like the common name Smith, the proper name John Smith identifies which particular Smith is referred to. In Genesis 1:1, the “common name” of the Creator God is “Elohim” and was specifically identified with a “proper name” in Gen. 2:4 as “YHVH ELOHIM” or Lord God in English. This YHVH ELOHIM is numerically one, “above all gods” (Ps. 95:3; 135:5) and the only Lord God commanded to Israel to be worshipped and not any other; this became the basis of Israel’s SHEMA doctrine ( Deut. 6:4).

The immortal Creator God “elohim” or YHVH ELOHIM/Lord God is also named LOGOS in John 1. He incarnated into man-Jesus to die for Adam’s and mankind’s sin to reconcile us to God the Father. This particular Elohim was the God referred to in the O.T. Whereas, the Father was the God referred to, in general, in the N.T.  They are indeed different, yet “one”, as we are all different, yet “one” with our Lord God Jesus and our God the Father ( I Cor. 12:12; 12:20).

Without this incarnation into “mortal flesh” like Adam, the spirit-composed and immortal Creator God would not have died. This is an absolute expression of love and faith “of” Jesus (Rom. 3:21-22) for him to “give up his divine/ spirit composition”(Phil. 2:7) and be human to die. Indeed, there is no greater love than for one “to give his life for another”(Jn.15:13). As man-Jesus, a mortal flesh, he is still .”god”, as in John 10:34.

Regarding death, the mechanism can be understood by going back to the “creation of man”. Remember that Adam was formed “from the ground, and it was good” but became “living” or alive only after the “breath of life” was breathed into him (Gen. 2:7; 7:21-22). Presence of this “breath of life” in “mortal flesh” defines life or death. Functionally, we observe this among newborns; unless there is spontaneous or artificial breathing, they are dead.

This is why death happens when the “breath of life”, (the “spirit of man”) leaves the “mortal flesh”, goes back to God the Father and our physical body becomes “dust”. See Eccl 12:7. What happens to that ” breath of life/spirit of man” depends on what the Father decides. Without that ” breath of life” restored into another body, “physical or spirit- composed”, for practical purposes, the person is dead. Consider all “data” in the computer can be downloaded into a “thumb-drive” and you can take the “thumb-drive” anywhere you go. The computer may be buried/ destroyed but the “data/ memory” in the ” thumb-drive” can be “restored” in a “new” computer, thus like being “resurrected”. 

With the context laid out in the preceding prolegomenon, Jesus is the Creator God YHVH ELOHIM, Logos and eternal, the “same yesterday, today and forever” (Heb. 13:8). As a Creator God and Logos, he is immortal. But, as incarnated “mortal flesh”, yes God “died” for our sake

GOAT FOR AND TO AZAZEL?

Controversy continues as to what these 2 goats of the Day of atonement represents.

What is undeniable is that these 2 goats are for the atonement of sins. But, whose sins? From the narrative in Leviticus 16, the goat for YHVH (Lord) was killed and the goat to Azazel was presented alive to YHVH (Lord). The 1st goat was for the atonement of sins of mankind. Could the atonement of the 2nd goat be for sins of the “fallen angels”?

Notice that in v-15, the killed goat was a sin offering for the sins of Israel and by extension includes that of Gentiles. On the other hand, in v-10, the other goat was presented alive and was sent into the wilderness to Azazel. But why should Aaron after atonement of sins of Israel through the death of the first goat in v-16, again, in v-21, “lay both his hands upon the head of the live goat, and confess over him all the iniquities of the children of Israel, and all their transgressions in all their sins..”?

Looking back at creation, angels and humans were created by YHVH, the Word-Creator. Adam, representing humans, sinned and death came to all mankind. Similarly, Lucifer sinned and in fact took away with him a third of angelic beings. To be a substitute for humans, the second Adam (Jesus) has to be human as well.

YYHVH has to incarnate as man-Jesus to die for mankind. The parallel here, is shared by many, that the 1st goat that was killed represented the atoning sacrificial death of Jesus to reconcile mankind to God. But, how about the sins of angelic beings? Notice in V-10 “…but the goat on which the lot fell for Azazel shall be presented alive before the Lord to make atonement over it, that it may be sent away into the wilderness to Azazel”. The purpose of the live-goat was also for atoning the sins of “fallen angels” and to reconcile them to God.

As a goat that was killed, so was the man Jesus killed. But as a resurrected Jesus, “he went and preached unto the spirits(fallen angels) in prison” (I Pet. 3:19). These fallen angels are in “… chains of darkness,..”(2 Pet 2:4), “… everlasting chains…”(Jude 1:6).

The live-goat (resurrected Jesus) with sins of mankind “upon the head of the goat” as proof, told these “fallen angels” about his atoning sacrifice for man. As Jesus reconciled mankind to God with his death, having been resurrected and alive he can also atone and reconcile the “fallen angels” as he will be sitting in “the right hand of God”.

As YHVH, and the Word-Creator being the incarnate Jesus, these 2 goats foreshadow what Jesus will do in the future. He has provided a mechanism for atonement of all sins to reconcile all to God